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Marbury by Jim Davies
November
5, 2009 There's a legal case which changed the face of
America, and which poisons a great deal of contemporary life; it's known
as Marbury v. Madison, and was decided by the Supreme Court of the
United States (SCOTUS) in 1803. That was the year the Judicial Branch
drove through the gaping hole left for it by Article
Three of the Constitution (which gives it very few powers and imposed
few restrictions) and handed itself the power to act as the final arbiter
of law in this country. In its decision came these words of John Marshall,
the Chief Justice: "It is emphatically the province and duty of
the judicial department to say what the law is. Those who apply the rule
to particular cases, must of necessity expound and interpret that rule. If
two laws conflict with each other, the courts must decide on the operation
of each." The details of the case are not important, so
let's dispose of them quickly and then get down to its serious
significance for us. In the waning days of Marbury chose to file with the Supreme Court
directly, and not first to some inferior Court, because the Judiciary Act
of 1789, in §13, expressly gave the Supreme Court the "power to
issue writs of . . . mandamus" as well as the power to hear appeals
from lower courts, which does appear in Article Three. Here's where the brain begins to bend. Marshall's Court rejected
Marbury's suit, on the grounds that a mere act of Congress cannot delegate
power to SCOTUS; that's the right of the Constitution writers or amenders
only (so far, so fair) and hence that Judiciary Act was unconstitutional
and so Marbury was in the wrong jurisdiction.
But then I suppose he might, had he been challenged, have
defended his action with a straight face, saying that in order to prevent
Congress setting a precedent by amending the Constitution (which the
Judiciary Act would indeed have done) he "had" to take the power
himself, for the Court, to determine what is, and is not, Constitutional.
If not he, then who? That five-word question was never asked, as far
as I know, and yet it is critical to the theory of limited government. If government consists of a dictator (or monarch, or high priest),
there's no problem: whatever he decrees is law. Those bring some downside,
however, in the form of extreme discontent often expressed in coups,
bloodletting and revolutions every few years, so these days most pols try
to prolong their careers by pretending to govern by the will of, or with
the consent of, the governed. It's a ridiculous fiction, for if consent is
given, no governing is done, while if governing is done, consent is
obviously absent. But repeat
an absurdity often enough when minds are young and impressionable, and it
tends to worm its way into lore as well as law. So it has been with Article One says the "Congress" does,
and that's a nice, soothing lullaby because Congresscritters have to get
re-elected quite often, so as to sustain the fiction that it's really We
The People who are making our own laws. But in practice, Congress messes
up and contradicts itself, and even does what is not allowed by its terms
of reference--as in the 1789 Judiciary Act, in the very first decade of
its existence. Who, then, is to slap it on the wrist? It can't be the Executive, for the Prez is
clearly only supposed to execute the expressed will of Congress (Ha!).
That leaves only the judiciary, but Article Three doesn't give that branch
any particular powers at all--certainly not to overrule Congress. And none
of the three are allowed to change their own terms of reference, the
Constitution--yet here in Marbury, the Supreme Courtiers scolded
Congress for trying to do just that, and in the next breath went ahead and
did it themselves. That they did for the first time then--but not for the
last; in Eisner v. Macomber (1920), they lectured Congress about
not having the power to define the critically important term "income"
(because it's used, but not defined, in Amendment 16), but then solemnly
defined it (quite well, as it happens) themselves, thereby amending the
Constitution with nary a whisper that for that task the States are
supposed, by Article Five, to muster a 3/4 majority. Their arrogance is
almost unbelievable. SCOTUS has therefore in practice grabbed the
power to make law, so making nonsense of the notion that The People elect
representatives to do that job; and the Supremos aren't elected, therefore
"limited government" is a farce and a fiction. It doesn't exist,
and hasn't existed since 1789, or certainly not since 1803. Not, mind you,
that things would be much improved if it did exist; for rule by a majority
is still rule, only slightly less odious than rule by oligarchs. Only a
society in which all obligations are undertaken voluntarily--a "free
market"--is consistent with human nature. Let's check, though, how well or poorly the judicial branch has used
its power to make law. It hasn't all been destructive. There have been a
few decisions that brought ordinary people benefit by restricting the
power of the other branches, none more so than the Pollock one of
1896, which struck down a Congressional attempt to tax individuals'
property directly without the "apportionment" required by
Article One, Section Two. Pollock
is still "holding" (never reversed or overturned) and so on that
basis alone (though there's very, very much
more!) the income tax does not exist in law, and so is
being enforced illegally. The subject of this alleged tax is of vast
importance, because it funds a majority of the entire government industry.
Directly, as a quick reference to the helpful Seventeen years after 1896, Congress tried (and
failed) to wriggle out of the Pollock prohibition with Amendment
16, and the Supremos again got it right, though this time with convoluted
language probably designed not to be understood by plain folk--yet in
cases between 1916 and 1921, they definitely said that "the [16th]
Amendment contains nothing repudiating or challenging the Pollock
case" and that it "gave Congress no new taxing power" (both
from the Brushaber decision) and "The provisions of the 16th
Amendment conferred no new power of taxation" (from Stanton v.
Baltic Mining). There are several others in similar vein. That
Amendment 16 "conferred no new power of taxation" comes as a
complete jaw-dropper today to everyone in the political arena, and I bet
you never heard it from your government-school civics teacher. In the nine decades since then, however, SCOTUS
has done very little to protect us from the ravages of the income tax. The
only favorable rulings that come to mind were those of Cheek in
1991 and Bishop in 1973. The former said that a jury may properly
acquit a tax-case defendant if satisfied that he acted with a
"good-faith misunderstanding of the law" and the latter, that
"the requirement that an offense be committed 'willfully' is not met
. . . if a taxpayer has relied in good faith on a prior decision of this
Court . . ." Those 1916-21 cases provide just such a set of excellent
"prior decisions" on which one might rely. Otherwise,
the
judicial branch has proactively helped enforce this illegal tax at lower
court levels, while remaining lethally silent at the topmost level; the
most recent example is the October conviction of Pete
Hendrickson, whose judge refused to let jurors examine the law for
themselves, lest it "cause them to speculate as to its meaning."
There have been plenty of appeals with which SCOTUS could have killed the
tax stone dead, but every one of them were "denied certiorari"--that
is, the Court declined to "hear" them, a fate met by 95% of all
appeals to that body. It has never endorsed its enforcement, but it has
never interfered with it, either. It therefore qualifies for full
membership in what Irwin Schiff has well
called the "Federal Mafia," and, on the basis of Marbury,
senior membership at that. Would the history of the last two centuries have
been happier, had the Marbury case had a different outcome? It's very hard to say, because the only other
possible outcome was that SCOTUS accepted that Congress could
define its powers and amend the Constitution (regardless of how it
disposed of Marbury's complaint). If it had not ruled the 1789 Judiciary
Act unconstitutional, it would forever have been hobbled--while Congress,
instead of the judicial branch, would have become the final arbiter of its
own laws and the mob rule that is "democracy" would have run
wild and completely unrestrained ever since. Would that have been better
or worse for us? It sure doesn't give me any warm, cozy feelings. Here's the wrap: the particular way government
arranges its affairs in this country is a fairy tale. Powers allegedly
granted are divided, but not in the way described in its terms of
reference. Branches L, E and J
have all grossly exceeded those powers and by Marbury, Branch J
hoist itself up by its own bootstraps to be the ultimate source of law for
all, while being answerable to nobody, so demonstrating that the pretty
design for government of, by and for the people simply cannot work. In an earlier
article here I noted that the alleged grant of all powers is in any
case a fraud, since "We the People" never took a direct hand in
the matter even in the 18th Century, let alone the 21st, and even if they
or we had, the powers said to be granted are not within the possession of
any person to give away or delegate in the first place. There is no rational alternative to a free market. Jim Davies is a retired businessman in New Hampshire who led the development of an on-line school of liberty in 2006, who expects to experience a free society in his lifetime, and who in 2008 wrote the books "A Vision of Liberty" and " Transition to Liberty." |